What is spoken of in John 1:1, 14 as being with God in the beginning is
the "Word." Hence, in order to understand the real message of John 1:1,
14, we should first clarify the meaning of the term "Word". Does it
really refer to a 'pre-existence' as other allege? No. The Holy
Scripture prove instead that the "Word" refers to God's "promise" to
send His Son, which He "announced" before.
"Which He promised beforehand through His prophets in the Holy
Scriptures, concerning His Son, who was born of a descendant of David
according to flesh" (Rom. 1:2-3), New American Standard Bible.
"Which He announced before through His prophets in holy
writings-concerning His Son, (who is come of the seed of David according
to the flesh. (Rom. 1:2-3), Young's Liberal Translation. Moreover, Ryrie Study Bible explains that logos, the Greek equivalent of the terms "Word" in John 1:1, 14 means a "thought or concept"
(p. 1599). This term-promise, announcement, thought, concept-refers to
things that are abstract, not yet concrete, or not yet "made flesh".
This is similar to a blueprint for a house, which is only a plan not yet
constructed material house. Clearly, then, the term "Word" in John 1:1,
14 is not Christ Himself but the "foreknowledge" or plan of God
concerning Christ.
"Foreknown, indeed, before the foundation of the world, he has been
manifested in the last times for you sakes." (I Peter 1:20, Confraternity Version).
This pronouncement of Apostle Peter that Christ was "foreknown before
the foundation of the world" explain the statement in the Gospel
according to John, "In the beginning was the "Word". Hence, what
was there in the beginning was not Christ Himself but God's "Word" or
foreknowledge of Him. "Foreknowledge" is defined by the dictionary as
"knowledge of things before it happens or exist". (Webster New Unabridged Dictionary,
p. 717). If Christ had already been existing before the foundation of
the world, then there would not be any need to "foreknow" Him.
Therefore, the fact that Christ was foreknown before the foundation of
the world dispproved His so called pre-existence.
What does the clause "And the Word become flesh"
mean then? The "Word" which was only a thought or plan in the beginning
was fulfilled when Mary gave birth to Jesus (Gal. 4:4) who is "truly
human" (I Tim. 2:5, Contemporary English Version)
or indeed "flesh" (Gen. 6:3). We should not forget that it was the
"Word" which became flesh and not God Himself. John 1:1, 14 therefore
does not in any way teaches that God became man or that Christ is God
incarnate.
So why
then did Apostle John state in John 1:1 that "the Word was God"? It is
because God is almighty or powerful (Gen. 35:11), and so are His words
(Luke 1:37). Thus, "the Word was God" indeed, but not in the sense that
the "Word" is another divine being aside from God, but that it
possesses the qualities and attributes of God. In John 1:1 the word
"God" in the clause "the Word was God" is used not as a noun but as an
adjective. That is why in other renditions of the Bible, such as Moffat
and Godspeed, John 1:1 states: The Word was divine."